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Did Jesus ever claim to be Lord?

"There is condensation and editing; there is choice, reproduction and
witness. The Gospels have come through the mind of the Church behind the
authors. They represent experience and history." (Kenneth Cragg, the
Anglican Bishop of Jerusalem, The Call of the Minaret, p 277)

Jesus never claimed that he was literally the son of God, or God. There are
many verses in the Bible confirming this fact. None of the verses quoted
directly from Jesus support Trinity or deity of Jesus, if we eliminate the
interpretations of St. Paul and his disciples. We will present those verses
in the coming questions. It is a well known historical fact that today's
Christianity is the product of the Nicene Conference (325 AD). In that
conference, the clergy established the Trinity and banned many Gospels that
did not contain their distorted ideas. In today's Bible there are a few
distorted verses about the divinity of Jesus, which contradict the whole
Old Testament, and the majority of the Gospels.

Some outstanding Christian scholars have reached the conclusion that the
deity of Jesus is a mere fabrication. As the examples of critical studies
on Christianity, here I list the name of two books: The Myth of God
Incarnate, John Hick, ed., The Westminster, Philadelphia, 1977, and Jesus:
Myth & Message, Lisa Spray, Universal Unity, Fremont, California, 1992.

The doctrine of modern Christianity with its implication that God Almighty
has a multiple personality, and that He sacrificed one of His personalities
for the salvation of human kind, has nothing to do with Jesus, as we will
discuss in the next questions.

Two translations, two meanings

Here are two translations of Matthew 7:21. One is from the version
authorized by a king (not God), King James, The other is The New American
Bible, which was translated by the members of Catholic Biblical Association
of America. Notice the contradiction between the two translations in the
first three words of that verse:

King James Version:

"Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom
of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven."

The New American Bible (1970):

"None of those who cry out, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of God but
only the one who does the will of my Father in heaven."

In light of the verses that follow (Mt 7:22,23), which clearly indicate
Jesus' anger and displeasure at people who call him "Lord, Lord", it is
obvious that both translators distorted Mt 7:21 in a different manner.
Ironically, by comparing them side by side, the true account inevitably
emerges: "None of those who call me, 'Lord, Lord,'. . ."

Our question for Christian Scholars on Mt 7:21 has two parts. The simple
part of the question is:

Which One Is Correct:

"Not every one..." OR "None of those..." ?

And the difficult part is: Why?

2006-08-29 03:18:05 · 19 answers · asked by ewshs 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

Such a long cut and paste, I thought Muslims were not supposed to preach?

I'll give a short answer.

Here is the question:

Do you believe Jesus is god...?

Here is the answer:

YES

Peace!

2006-08-29 03:22:24 · answer #1 · answered by C 7 · 0 2

You bounce around quite a bit in the course of your question. The Council of Nicea came together to deal with the question of the relationship of Jesus to the Father - Justin said that Christ was merely an attribute of God, while Tertullian said that there were three personalities with one essence. It did NOT take certain books out of the Bible, nor did it change the books we have today - there are copies from earlier than that which are the same that we have today. This is an urban legend based on nothing.

As for Matthew 7:21, the Greek literally says, "Not all that say to me, Lord, Lord..." How do you translate "Not all"? In the context, it is clear that calling Jesus "Lord" is not being condemned, but rather calling Him Lord and not doing the will of God. I think that the evidence supports the King James reading.

2006-08-29 03:30:17 · answer #2 · answered by flyersbiblepreacher 4 · 0 0

One must look at the preceding verses to understand Matthew 7:21. Jesus was preaching to a large crowd and had been referring to false prophets. The New International Version translates as follows, " Not everyone who says to me,'Lord, Lord' will enter the kingdom of heaven but only he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven." One can deduce from this that Jesus was addressing a problem that was confusing to the people-that of false prophets. He did say, "Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me.." and that the Father would later send the Holy Spirit in my (His) name. Anytime a single verse is taken out of the context of those around it, there exists the possibility for misinterpretation. I do believe in the Trinity.{ check out John 10: 30}

2006-08-29 06:35:45 · answer #3 · answered by ponyboy 81 5 · 0 0

Jesus IS GOD. He is part of the Trinity. The Father, The Son and The Holy Spirit.

2006-08-29 03:24:46 · answer #4 · answered by Art 2 · 0 0

If anyone loves Me, he will keep My Word; and my Father will love him, and WE will come to him and make our home with him. Jn 14:23

Also, since every true believer is indwelt by the Holy Spirit, this shows that the they are now in communion and fellowship with the Godhead, all three!

The Trinity exists.

2006-08-29 05:19:58 · answer #5 · answered by novalee 5 · 0 0

"Not everyone" who calls Jesus Lord (or, master) is doing God's will, so will not enter into his Kingdom.

However, SOME of them are, and therefore will do so.

It is not what we profess, but what we actually do.

1-John 2:17 reads similarly: "Furthermore, the world is passing away and so is its desire, but he that does the will of God remains forever." (The last half of the phrase is the similar part.)

We can claim to believe and to have faith all we want, but if our faith does not produce works of faith, then it is dead, as James 2:14-26 says.

The Bible, however, does not teach that Jesus is God, but it does teach that he is the Son of God.

2006-08-29 03:30:16 · answer #6 · answered by Abdijah 7 · 0 0

Yes. Read the Bible more closely instead of submitting these LONG questions.
I could site as many references/verses that support this but then my answer would be as long as your question. And I don't want to bore people.

2006-08-29 03:33:23 · answer #7 · answered by JW 4 · 0 0

NO, Jesus was a prophet, and in my personal opinion, no more greater or lesser than the Prophets that came before or after him. None the less I still believe in his word.

2006-08-29 03:34:20 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

To answer your question, yes, I believe that Jesus is God manifested in the flesh. When the disciples asked Jesus can you show us the Father, Jesus answered them, when you have seen me, you have seen the Father. I and my father are one.

2006-08-29 03:23:29 · answer #9 · answered by Caleb's Mom 6 · 0 0

you have distorted this scripture,Jesus is saying that some who call him Lord never knew him as Lord in their life,they weren't sincere Christians,he never claimed not to be God

2006-08-29 03:29:38 · answer #10 · answered by san_ann68 6 · 1 0

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