Does anyone who is knowledgeable of Christianity as to have read, studied and may be aware of details within your faith, - AND would be able to explain : Once Jesus had gone for interrogation before the SanHedrin, and He was asked whether He was the son of God, to whom He answered "YES"(He was),
Then, when turned over to the Romans for the crime of Blasphemy to whom he answered "He was the Son of man"
Why did he answer so differently to both of his interrogators?
What would he have meant to by the "Son of Man"?
What would the "Son of Man", have meant or represented?
Was there a reason, you would know why His answer to the same question was different, when given to either group?
Was it part of a strategy, needed, in order to manifest his martyrdom? Thusly fulfilling the prophecy that the Messiah had Come?
Or was he speaking metaphorically for a reason of a mystery to at some time be deciphered.
Thank you for any explanation to this contradiction.
2007-12-18
10:25:33
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7 answers
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asked by
skydancerwi
6
in
Religion & Spirituality