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Does anyone who is knowledgeable of Christianity as to have read, studied and may be aware of details within your faith, - AND would be able to explain : Once Jesus had gone for interrogation before the SanHedrin, and He was asked whether He was the son of God, to whom He answered "YES"(He was),

Then, when turned over to the Romans for the crime of Blasphemy to whom he answered "He was the Son of man"

Why did he answer so differently to both of his interrogators?

What would he have meant to by the "Son of Man"?

What would the "Son of Man", have meant or represented?

Was there a reason, you would know why His answer to the same question was different, when given to either group?

Was it part of a strategy, needed, in order to manifest his martyrdom? Thusly fulfilling the prophecy that the Messiah had Come?

Or was he speaking metaphorically for a reason of a mystery to at some time be deciphered.

Thank you for any explanation to this contradiction.

2007-12-18 10:25:33 · 7 answers · asked by skydancerwi 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

There is a very interesting point brought about in 2 answers.
"The Father, The Angels, AND Demons"
In the scriptures, is there a reason why The Father and The Angels, would have allowed the company of Demons to speak?
Or to have a meaningful place among the other 2, benign Presences?
What was needed of the demons in this?

I know who The Father is, and also the Angels, but why are the demons significant of
presence as well, in this.

Had they a power to be acknowledged among The Angels and The Father?

This is another issue causing me confusion.
I did not know of these demons existing, and being mentioned.

2007-12-18 10:48:14 · update #1

Who are these "demons"?

Thank you.

2007-12-18 10:49:31 · update #2

Again, with all 3 questions about Christian Scripture, with which I have become very unfamiliar, I need to print all your answers and
study them carefully before I make a final vote.
I'm extending the date of expiration.
Thank you.

2007-12-20 12:37:41 · update #3

7 answers

Man was created in God's image, and Jesus was preordained to appropriate all the sins of man so that *all* men and women could attain heavenly splendor despite their human failings. Lest us not also forget that Jesus was contained and habitted in the vessel of a man. Thustly, Jesus is both Son of God and Son of Man.

Let us not forget the conspicuousness of this lesson during the holiday season.

2007-12-18 18:15:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The Father, angels and demons acknowledged Jesus as the Son of God. Jesus' favorite phrase was the Son of Man. Jesus said in the beginning "let us make man into our image". Jesus became the first man to be created into the image of God. Through his death and resurrection into a glorified body he has shown the way for the elect. I think he preferred the son of man to imply his personal work and sacrifice for the perfected creation of man.

2007-12-18 10:34:31 · answer #2 · answered by Overseer 3 · 0 0

Because the question being asked was different.

Questions of the Sanhedrin:

Matthew 26
63...The high priest said to him, "I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God." 64"Yes, it is as you say," Jesus replied.

Luke 22:70 They all asked, "Are you then the Son of God?"
He replied, "You are right in saying I am."

Question of Pilate:

Matthew 27:11Meanwhile Jesus stood before the governor, and the governor asked him, "Are you the king of the Jews?" "Yes, it is as you say," Jesus replied.

I don't recall them asking Him whether He was the Son of Man, I'll look again. Definitely not in the NIV.

2007-12-18 10:34:07 · answer #3 · answered by Holy Holly 5 · 0 0

The son of man, and the son of God are the same. You see, the Messiah was God in the flesh. So He was son of God and son of woman. It was common to use the term, " man " in reference to male and female. We would say son of God and flesh.
God be with you,
William, a bond-servant of Jesus
<'(((><

2007-12-18 10:39:43 · answer #4 · answered by BOC 5 · 0 0

That's an interesting question because the roman punishment for blasphemy was stoning and the punishment for rebellion was crucifixion. And if Christans believe he was crucified then he was given the punishment for rebellion not blasphemy.

2007-12-19 03:16:47 · answer #5 · answered by Knowing Gnostic 5 · 0 0

they are no longer Jews through fact Jew's have not got self assurance the messiah has come yet. they have not got self assurance Jesus so believing in Jesus and asserting your Jewish needless to say contradicts one yet another.... it quite is unhappy that there are those Evangelist Christians that decision themselves "Jews". supply up this custom now, your disgracing the two Judaism and Christianity.

2016-10-08 21:27:30 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Son of Man

In Hebrew this is mainly a translation of the expression ben-’a·dham′. Instead of referring to the person, Adam, ’a·dham′ is here used generically for “mankind” so that the expression ben-’a·dham′ means, in essence, “a son of mankind, a human, an earthling son.”

Christ Jesus, “the Son of Man.” In the Gospel accounts the expression is found nearly 80 times, applying in every case to Jesus Christ, being used by him to refer to himself. (Mt 8:20; 9:6; 10:23) The occurrences outside the Gospel accounts are at Acts 7:56; Hebrews 2:6; and Revelation 1:13; 14:14.

Jesus’ application of this expression to himself clearly showed that God’s Son was now indeed a human, having ‘become flesh’ (Joh 1:14), having ‘come to be out of a woman’ through his conception and birth to the Jewish virgin Mary. (Ga 4:4; Lu 1:34-36) Hence he had not simply materialized a human body as angels had previously done; he was not an incarnation but was actually a ‘son of mankind’ through his human mother.—Compare 1Jo 4:2, 3; 2Jo 7;

For this reason the apostle Paul could apply Psalm 8 as prophetic of Jesus Christ. In his letter to the Hebrews (2:5-9), Paul quoted the verses reading: “What is mortal man [’enohsh′] that you keep him in mind, and the son of earthling man [ben-’a·dham′] that you take care of him? You also proceeded to make him a little less than godlike ones [“a little lower than angels,” at Hebrews 2:7], and with glory and splendor you then crowned him. You make him dominate over the works of your hands; everything you have put under his feet.” (Ps 8:4-6; compare Ps 144:3.) Paul shows that, to fulfill this prophetic psalm, Jesus indeed was made “a little lower than angels,” becoming actually a mortal “son of earthling man,” that he might die as such and thereby “taste death for every man,” thereafter being crowned with glory and splendor by his Father, who resurrected him.—Heb 2:8, 9; compare Heb 2:14; Php 2:5-9.

The designation “Son of man,” therefore, also serves to identify Jesus Christ as the great Kinsman of mankind, having the power to redeem them from bondage to sin and death, as well as to identify him as the great Avenger of blood.—Le 25:48, 49; Nu 35:1-29;

Thus, Jesus’ being called the “Son of David” (Mt 1:1; 9:27) emphasizes his being the heir of the Kingdom covenant to be fulfilled in David’s line; his being called the “Son of man” calls attention to his being of the human race by virtue of his fleshly birth; his being called the “Son of God” stresses his being of divine origin, not descended from the sinner Adam or inheriting imperfection from him but having a fully righteous standing with God.—Mt 16:13-17.


Here are some scriptures concerning Jesus and demons...

Mark 1:32-34 - "After evening had fallen, when the sun had set, the people began bringing him all those who were ill and those demon-possessed; and the whole city was gathered right at the door. So he cured many that were ill with various sicknesses, and he expelled many demons, but he would not let the demons speak, because they knew him to be Christ."

Luke 4:41 - "Demons also would come out of many, crying out and saying: “You are the Son of God.” But, rebuking them, he would not permit them to speak, because they knew him to be the Christ."

Matthew 8:29 - "And, look! they screamed, saying: “What have we to do with you, Son of God? Did you come here to torment us before the appointed time?”"

Mark 3:11 - "Even the unclean spirits, whenever they would behold him, would prostrate themselves before him and cry out, saying: “You are the Son of God.”"

Where did the demon come from, and are they significant...

Jude 6 - "And the angels that did not keep their original position but forsook their own proper dwelling place he has reserved with eternal bonds under dense darkness for the judgment of the great day."

2 Peter 2:4 - "Certainly if God did not hold back from punishing the angels that sinned, but, by throwing them into Tar´ta·rus, delivered them to pits of dense darkness to be reserved for judgment;"

Perhaps you could explain your confusion to help me better answer your questions...

Journey Well...

2007-12-18 10:34:19 · answer #7 · answered by Juggernaut 2 · 0 0

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