As we all know, a controversial moral topic is whether or not gay marriages are permitted. The main anti-gay marriage argument I hear is that the Bible says "A man is not to lie with a man the way he would with a woman." (I don't know the exact chapter of the Bible this quote is from.)
However, if you look at Leviticus 25:44-46, the Bible says: " 'Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property..."
This passage essentially says that slavery is acceptable, so here's my question: Is it logical for some people to use a literal interpretation of the Bible to justify being against gay marriage, yet avoid using a literal interpretation for the passage on slavery?
I am not saying that slavery is in any way moral.
If you want to see my quote in context, here's a link: http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=leviticus%2025&version=31
2007-07-25
06:11:58
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