or is she more commonly referred to as something else?
this is my thought:
If the Lord promised a child to an almah, which would obviously mean it must origin in Holiness, it would be either one of these:
that the almah is married - the marriage would be necessary because the Lord is Holy and wouldn't allow a promised Child that is of God's purpose to be born in sin.
or that the almah is unmarried - in which case she would have to be virgin to again avoid an unholy situation
if it is not common for an almah to be known within wedlock, it must then mean that the almah referred to in Isaiah 7:14 must be a virgin
I know this verse is contraversial for the two religions, but please try to be as objective as you can for my sake :)
2007-07-25
23:59:08
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
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Religion & Spirituality