Basically, is someone still a misogynist/misandrist if they only "hate" 3/4 of the opposite sex, and only in the vulnerable area of romantic relationships?
I've recently gained a new understanding of what my (awful) ex-wife used to say to me. She used to say that I hated women. I suppose that hate is just barely appropriate, but I'll accept it, with a caveat. The distinction I'd like to make is that I think it's very reasonable for sensitive men and women, most of which have been burned, to have suspicion/borderline hatred for most examples of the opposite sex, at least how the opposite sex behaves in the romantic arena.
You have to admit, most men and women are, to varying extents, incapable of a respectful relationship with the opposite sex, or at least the examples they keep ending up with.
Should someone be labeled so harshly, when all they're being is wise?
2007-11-03
07:51:02
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7 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Gender Studies