Most theories, it seems, suggest that economic superiority proceeds political superiority. But I can't help but notice a striking difference between Ancient and Modern times in relation to this theory.
When I think of power politics in modern times I see countless examples of a new or existing state that suddenly gains and economic edge which is a precursor to later political gains. Take the unification of Germany and Italy. The modernization of Japan and the USSR. The rise of the British Empire.
But in ancient times the story seems to be reversed. Rome, compared to the territories in the East it conquered, was relatively poor and backwards in almost every field. Likewise when Rome collapsed it wasn't to a more economically superior competing state or coalition, it was scattered waves of poor Germanic and Central Asian tribes. Macedonia and Alexander the Great were similarly poor and backwards compared to their victims the Persian Empire.
Anyone have some insight?
2007-12-22
04:01:01
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5 answers
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asked by
Jesus Cake
3