When Germany attacked in the West on May 10, 1940, the air forces of the Allies (French, British, Belgians, Dutch) had a substantial combined numerical superiority over the Luftwaffe. Certainly, the Luftwaffe's aircraft were generally superior plane-to-plane. But the Luftwaffe totaled 1,900 bombers and 1,470 fighters. The total air forces' strength of the Allies was 1,625 bombers and 3,500 fighters.
Yet, on the Western Front (the only place that mattered) the Luftwaffe enjoyed an almost 2:1 numerical advantage: -
Germany: Bombers 1,559; Fighters 1,220.
Allies: Bombers 398; Fighters 1,050.
I know that the RAF held much of its strength back in Britain for "home defence". And both France and Britain presumably deployed aircraft for imperial defense in the Middle East, India, SE Asia, etc.
Were the Allies so sure that Hitler would never dare to attack on the Western Front that they squandered their aerial numerical superiority in pointless deployments elsewhere?
2007-08-11
07:40:04
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10 answers
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asked by
Gromm's Ghost
6
in
History