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When Germany attacked in the West on May 10, 1940, the air forces of the Allies (French, British, Belgians, Dutch) had a substantial combined numerical superiority over the Luftwaffe. Certainly, the Luftwaffe's aircraft were generally superior plane-to-plane. But the Luftwaffe totaled 1,900 bombers and 1,470 fighters. The total air forces' strength of the Allies was 1,625 bombers and 3,500 fighters.
Yet, on the Western Front (the only place that mattered) the Luftwaffe enjoyed an almost 2:1 numerical advantage: -
Germany: Bombers 1,559; Fighters 1,220.
Allies: Bombers 398; Fighters 1,050.
I know that the RAF held much of its strength back in Britain for "home defence". And both France and Britain presumably deployed aircraft for imperial defense in the Middle East, India, SE Asia, etc.
Were the Allies so sure that Hitler would never dare to attack on the Western Front that they squandered their aerial numerical superiority in pointless deployments elsewhere?

2007-08-11 07:40:04 · 10 answers · asked by Gromm's Ghost 6 in Arts & Humanities History

Some excellent answers. But, for those that think I was ignoring Poland ... that campaign had finished more than 7 months previously.

2007-08-13 01:51:26 · update #1

10 answers

Many of the French planes were destroyed on the ground, others were busy retreating to airfields that were not threatened. Quite a lot were in North Africa, and many more headed there during the biltzkreig.

However the main problems were organisational - the campaign moved far too quickly for the allied command and control structures, and the decisive point for the air war was where the stukas were - and by the time the allied commanders knew where that was, the stukas had moved on - as had the blitzkreig.

Only the Germans had developed a doctrine of using close air support as "flying artillery" in support of ground forces - and since they didn't understand the doctrine the allies hadn't developed any counter to it.

Another other key factor was the pilots - the Germans had many experienced pilots, who'd flown in Spain (Spanish Civil War) and then in the Polish campaign.

2007-08-12 00:39:25 · answer #1 · answered by no_bloody_ids_available 4 · 0 0

The French air force had some good planes but it was not considered that important by their high command, due to the massacre of young men in WW1 there hadn't been much in the way of renewal among the high command and those 'old timers' were slow to understand the need for new technology like tanks and planes.
However, the Luftwaffe lost more than 2000 air crew during the French campaign, and one of the reason why Goering waited two months attacking Britain - and thus giving the RAF the time to regroup - was the need to wait for new flyers to fill in this huge gap. So the Luftwaffe did meet plenty of resistance.

2007-08-11 08:32:09 · answer #2 · answered by Cabal 7 · 1 0

It's not just numbers of planes, it's time in the air that counts. Suppose combatants A and B have equal numbers of planes, but their home airfields are 1 hour's flying time apart, and each plane can carry four hours' fuel. Then fighting over A's home country, B is outnumbered 2 to 1, but fighting over B's country, A is similarly outnumbered. This is the major reason why the German Luftwaffe lost the Battle of Britain.

1940 vintage bombers are a bit irrelevant in Blitzkrieg because they do not turn out to be particularly useful either in the support of ground forces, or in direct attacks against them.

2007-08-11 08:06:26 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

threy existed on paper yes, but in actuality few units where operational, and there where few replacement parts available, the logistics of the Airwar was havy i nthe German corner, they had vast supply net works and spare parts, aircraft needed repair daily, and you needed huge stock piles of parts. France,Belguim, Britian etc did not have these, they did not plan well in truth for a protracted war much more than having a show of force and peace time mind set of spares and availability. "You can't fly without supply" was a true statement in WWII on a large scale.

Also, you underestimate the superiority of the German Aircraft, the ratio was on average 9 to 1! that is nie allied aircrat where downed to one german, that was the kicker, they where so much more advanced, only the British had better olds of 3 to 1 at the time, Poland (did you forget Poland) had a 16 to 1! so multiply the German available and serviceable aircraft time 9, and that is how the Allies lost the Airwar. they where out classed, out supplied, and
out repaired, Germany eventually could not keep up the pace, the allies (Britian) started upgrading, and the tide stalemated in the air by 1941.

2007-08-11 16:49:26 · answer #4 · answered by edjdonnell 5 · 1 0

The first week of the German invasion, involved the bombing of allied air fields in northern France. Most of the
French and RAF planes were destroyed on the ground before bringing their superior numbers to bear. The same can be said of their tanks. The allies attacked in penny packets while the Germans massed their armour at the point of attack....result: no contest.

2007-08-11 22:28:04 · answer #5 · answered by Its not me Its u 7 · 0 0

the optimum military became the Wehrmacht, and became headed via the OKW and OKH. Ostensibly the OKH became subordinate to the OKW however the region after 1941 extra or much less had the OKW taking command in the west and the OKH heading up issues in the east. Command of the OKW became headed up via Keitel, however the real ability rested with Hitler. The OKH had a number of adult adult males heading it up, the final being Hans Krebs. the army concern became extra advantageous complicated with the addition of Waffen-SS instruments, ostensibly decrease than the administration of Himmler and via affiliation Hitler. there became additionally an OKM (army) and OKL (airforce) yet maximum folk purely understand them through fact the kriegsmarine and luftwaffe. The army became headed up first via admiral Raeder then admiral Donitz. The airforce became completely the puppy venture of Goering.

2016-10-02 02:59:19 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Basically the blitzkrieg involved the attack into Poland and the Allies didn't enter the war until AFTER Poland was attacked. Besides, as always with tyrants, there are too many people who feel the best way to deal with them is to just give them a little more, just accept one more promise from them, and surely Hitler won't carry it any father ...

2007-08-11 07:49:02 · answer #7 · answered by John B 7 · 0 1

Weapons are nice to have but useless if you have little clue what to do with them. Doctrine & Strategy win Wars, In 1940 there was no ALLIED air force. There were several uncordinated 'local' airforces but no one absolutely no one was prepared to get them to agree on sometime such as a coordinated defense against possible agression by Germany.
Holland had World War One as an example, their neutrality had been honored then was not Hitler a German, a man of his word? ("I heard otherwise, wise up Wisenheimer")
Belgium desperately hoped Hitler was sincere when he said he had no intention invading them.
The French actually thought they could Kick Germany's hind end and proudly pointed out to an air fleet that appeared sheek sleek chic modern - - - but these were French Men behind the throttle!!
The Brits figured they could ride out the storm which they did, they 'hid' their resources, kept them in resrvecertain that close cooperation with the French was useless. Cannot stress this enough - - - in World War One the British actually had Confience in the French - - - they had zero Confidence in the French in 1940, hope, maybe but not confidence,
Quite simply there was no mechanism in place in 1940 for an allied airforce as it was with Hitler's Meddling and Gorings Dereliction of Duty ("blame Milch and Udet Darn It"), it was the German Air Force that began an Air Farce by 1944.

Peace--------------------------

2007-08-11 14:53:30 · answer #8 · answered by JVHawai'i 7 · 1 2

i think they were to slow by the time they got there *** in gear the germans had already ran over a lot of ground and the germans had the airforce to match them. the only allied airforce were the british france were crap. the allies knew hitler would probably attack but they didnt know when and werent prepared.

2007-08-11 07:51:00 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

thats a great question.
I think you're absolutely right. I can't believe someone never
thought of that before.

2007-08-11 07:48:33 · answer #10 · answered by soccerkik17 2 · 0 1

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