Ill risk sounding like a pedofile by asking this question. Im curious to know why homosexuality is supported while pedofiles are illegal, because the way I see it, a homosexual is just as bad as a pedofile.
why is there a difference between pedofiles and gays? why is it considered "ok" for a man to have a penis inserted into his anus, while according to law, a male who is 18.01 years old cannot have normal sex with a female who is 17.99 years old?
or why is it not ok for a 16 year old to have *normal* sex with a 19 year old? isnt there a state in the US where there is a law against straight sex with a minor but not gay sex with a minor?
if you assume that pedofile are "sick", then why arent gays sick? according to some studies, males who had abusive mothers or mothers who abused them were more likely to become homosexual. male pornstars generally become homosexual after having sex with an enormous amount of women. can this mean homosexuality can be a sickness as well?
2006-09-18
07:20:19
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14 answers
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asked by
kunta kinte
2
in
Psychology