Maybe someone can explain (without resorting to quoting text) just so I can understand a thumbs down from a previous answer...
I accept that Christians believe that they will get preferential treatment when they die - this is evidently difficult to prove or disprove! But supposing a Christian and an Atheist have exactly the same 'problem' on earth, e.g. they both want their mothers to be cured of an illness. If only the Christian prays (even though his mother may not be a Christian), does this mean that God will only consider doing a favour for his mother and not for the atheist's mother?
2006-11-07
06:56:11
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20 answers
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asked by
Musicol
4