have injunctions against male-female sex?
If majority of men are exclusively or primarily heterosexual then how come whenever the male spaces are strong and the society is male dominated, they have strong injuncitons against male-female sex (except what is necessary to force men into marriage and reproduction)..........
......and male to male sex (except of the transgendered and exclusively receptive variety) is accepted ----- even expected within the folds of 'straight' (i.e mainstream, manly stuff) identity, as a universal male quality?
Whether you look at the ancient Greeks or ancient tribes like the Samoans or the contemporary non-westernised, non-heterosexualised societies like India, Afghanistan, China, middle east, etc...........
One would expect the male domianted societies to be fiercely heterosexual and equally fiercely hostile to male-to-male sex.
2007-05-05
23:28:54
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5 answers
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asked by
Anonymous