Article 1 sec 2, US constitution, provides one house representative for every 30,000 people. No amendment to the constitution changed that. I understand that a 1929 reapportionment act from congress may have changed the number. How can a law or act by congress override what is in the constitution? Isn't an amendment to the constitution really required? With 300,000,000 people in the US, at the next census we would have 10,000 representatives using 1rep per 30000 people. Unwieldy yes but constitutional.
2007-01-27
03:55:51
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4 answers
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asked by
alanandspunky
1