In other words, if you pay 40% tax, then you can have 1.4 times the vote of someone who is not paying any tax.
2007-01-27 06:41:15 · 5 answers · asked by rwill54287 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
So you're saying that the rich should get richer, and the poor should get poorer--and the gap would become even wider. As it is there is barely a middle class any more--many are living from paycheck to paycheck.
How much money one has (and is taxed) should have nothing to do with voting--voting is the primo action of equal opportunity. Too many people needed to fight for the right--and you would take that away? Shameful.
2007-01-27 07:10:59 · answer #1 · answered by Holiday Magic 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Since the middle class is the only ones that pay that much tax I doubt the upper class will ever agree to it.
2007-01-27 07:24:45 · answer #2 · answered by popeyethesadist 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
And I suppose that since i CAN NOT physically work, if I were not married to a man with a decent job I would then have absolutely NO SAY in the laws changing and the people "running" the country that my children are growing up in?
2007-01-27 06:51:01 · answer #3 · answered by Betsy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yea! sounds good! I'll remember to bring that up in the next session of congress!
2007-01-27 06:50:49 · answer #4 · answered by James O only logical answer D 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because that is not democracy....and everyone pays some kind of tax...whether it be sales tax, gas tax, etc. Duh.
2007-01-27 06:45:12 · answer #5 · answered by ♥austingirl♥ 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋