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Article 1 sec 2, US constitution, provides one house representative for every 30,000 people. No amendment to the constitution changed that. I understand that a 1929 reapportionment act from congress may have changed the number. How can a law or act by congress override what is in the constitution? Isn't an amendment to the constitution really required? With 300,000,000 people in the US, at the next census we would have 10,000 representatives using 1rep per 30000 people. Unwieldy yes but constitutional.

2007-01-27 03:55:51 · 4 answers · asked by alanandspunky 1 in Politics & Government Government

4 answers

The number of representatives in the House of Representatives is determined by a states population. The higher a states population the more representatives that state has in the House. This is determined by the U.S. Census which conducts a census of the U.S. every 10 years, the next being in 2010. Additionally, if a states population is lower than the previous census, that state will lose a representative in the House.

2007-01-27 19:25:05 · answer #1 · answered by SeahawkFan37 5 · 0 0

Actually, the Constitution states there will be NO MORE THAN 1 Representative for every 30,000 and at least 1 per state. Per the Constitution then, there could be 1 for every 30,000; 50,000; 300,000; the current amount of about 700,000; or even 1 for every million. It's up to Congress to determine the formula as long as it meets the minimum and maximum set by the Constitution.

2014-12-08 07:26:39 · answer #2 · answered by David D 1 · 0 0

the enumeration of representatives are adjust by census as prescribed in ratio in the U.S constitution.

2007-01-27 04:00:54 · answer #3 · answered by ? 5 · 1 0

1911 WHEN IT WAS LIMITED CAN'T Blame Bush

2007-01-27 04:25:04 · answer #4 · answered by bob b 3 · 0 0

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