Before everyone starts sceaming at me, let me make my point. Slaves were considered property. They were bought, sold and traded legaly. Just like anything else you would buy. By federal decree, they were freed, with no compensation to the owner. Was it moral to own a human being? Of course not. Was it legal? In the southern ,and some midwest states, yes. Before you start calling me horrible names, think about this: You own something that you have paid for (house, car microwave oven, whatever) that is judged to be wrong by the government. It is taken from you, without your consent, and you are not given any reimbursment for the money you have, in good faith, paid.
Again, I am not talking about the morality involved, I am talking about just compensations for legal actions.
2006-07-13
07:29:05
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10 answers
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asked by
Dave B
4
in
Law & Ethics