I can't seem to find this anyway on the internet, but i have talked to a couple different laywers that think since my landlord did not sign the lease, and still have not signed it after 3 months, it may not be legally binding. I have found one thing online that says the contract is not in affect until all parties names on the contract have signed. Which there are 4 names total, and 2 of us have signed, the other 2 are the landlords, which have not. Also if this is true my other question is, is there anything we could do about getting our money back for the rent we have paid since it would not be in affect. We were not sure of this because we have been living here, so we may not get a refund. which is understandable. If this is true and since they did not sign, how would we go about dealing with it, would we just tell them, and if they do not believe us then they can do what they think they need to do. We are talking to some attorneys and seeing if they will be willing to write a letter to them. That is probably the way we will go if possible. Also, sorry last question I promise. Since they have a copy and we have a copy, we are worried about them signing there copy and going and saying they did sign it, even though we do not have a signed copy. There are also parts of the contract that say we will receive a copy of the contract, and a copy of 5 other things listed on the contract the day we sign. I did not receive any of these, and still have not received the list they said we would get information about? Does that make a difference?
2007-11-02
15:08:31
·
6 answers
·
asked by
jellybean91404
2