I'm looking into an owner-financed property. I noticed that the tax value is below the owner's asking price. I thought I was told before that for properties priced above tax value, lenders refuse to finance them later when you're ready to obtain a traditional mortgage. And that this is how a lot of these owner financed deals are doomed. But the seller says that tax value is just a value given by the county, and is often below actual purchase price, especially if the property has been very well maintained like this one has.
Am I misunderstanding the relation of tax value to sales price? I don't want to think badly of the seller or anything like that, in case that she's right and I'm wrong, you know?
BTW, the tax value is around $74,000 but asking price is $89,000. It's a very well maintained home, but I'm just not sure if something fishy is going on!
2007-11-05
05:59:53
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4 answers
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asked by
merebear83
2