My wife and I have been happily married for a few years. During her pregnancy we didn't have sex after the first month, and then for almost five months after our son was born. Being sympathetic with what she was going through, didn't press the issue during the pregnancy, but a couple months after he was born I began to bring it up. She had some pain associated with the c-section, and didn't feel comfortable with her body, so I was willing to wait a while longer. Finally, after a year of celebacy, we had sex a few times, but she had pain and some bleeding. She's been to a doctor, who's been unable to find a cause, and it's not lack of lubrication. Now it's been a month and a half. I don't want to hurt her or be unreasonable, but she's not willing to give oral (size and gag reflex, she says) and if she wanted it and it was painful for me, I would do it for her. I feel like my needs are being ignored., and wondering if this is not a reason but an excuse. Am I being unreasonable?
2007-02-23
17:33:15
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6 answers
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asked by
Killer B
2
in
Women's Health