The letters of St Paul provide traditional support for the position that homosexuality is sinful. He writes: "God has given [people who worship false gods] up to shameful passions. Their women have exchanged natural intercourse for unnatural, and their men in turn, giving up natural relations with women burn with lust for one another; males behave indecently with males and paid in their own persons the fitting wage of such perversion."
Paul later writes: "Make no mistake: no fornicator or idolator, none who are guilty either of adultery or of homosexual perversion, no thieves or grabbers of drunkards of slanderers or swindlers, will possess the kingdom of God."
Did Paul alternately mean to use the word "homosexual" for a "male" prostitute? Since Paul's letters are clearly of his time, and there are plenty of verses which people have no problem ignoring for ex. eating lobster, women praying bareheaded, not eating shellfish, ect. so why should homosexuality be regarded seperately?
2007-01-21
16:02:11
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8 answers
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asked by
Scarlet Crusader
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in
Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender