My ex and I separated and we have already had the property settlement done in court. I have to pay him a set amount of money. The court did not order the house to be sold, but I can only pay him his share if we sell the house. However, his child support payments have just been adjusted, and are quite a bit higher now than when we did property settlement in court. It would mean in 4 years time, he would have saved paying me what he is supposed to get under settlement. It also means the kids (3 and 6 years old) and I would not have to find somewhere else to live, move etc. I can refinance whats left of the mortgage into my name without a problem, plus save real estate fees, solicitors, removalists etc too.
Should I offer him no more child support payments ever, if he signs the house over to me? I can't find a website that offers this kind of advice to people.
I live in rural NSW, Australia-that might be important to know legally?
2006-12-16
00:14:08
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6 answers
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asked by
mudgeemum
2
in
Marriage & Divorce