If the OT/Talmud was written over 2,000 years ago in ancient hebrew that modern hebrew can not completely translate. and the NT was written in Greek 1900 years ago and no original copies exist, why should I believe the english translation of the bible where the word homosexual is used?Since neither language had a word for homosexuals and and the first known appearance of the term homosexual in print is found in an anonymous 1869 German pamphlet.The word homosexual is used in 1cor. 6:9 as translation for moichoi which has no direct definition but is in the family of these words:
moi, the simpler form of emoi - I, me, mine, my.
moichalis, a prolonged form of the feminine of moicoV moichos; an adulteress adulteressmoichao, from moicoV moichos; to commit adultery:commit adultery.
moicheia, from moiceuw - moicheuo; adultery:adultery.
moicheuo, from moicoV - moichos to commit adultery:commit adulter moichos, perhaps a primary word; a (male) paramour; figurative, apostate: adulterer
2006-11-14
13:30:23
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13 answers
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mike g
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