I know that at the "start"of the BIG BANG no cesiumatom existed.So "time"could not be expressed,certainly not by an atomoscillation.The reason of my question was that often I read:"one second (or one minute,hour,etc)after the beginning of the BIG BANG..." What is the meaning of such a statement?And when the first cesiumatom was born I suppose that "matter"was still extreme dense.I presume that 1 oscillation of that atom "then"would have been many oscillations of an cesiumatom in "ANOTHER WORLD"where there also have been a"BIG BANG" but very very earlier". RESUMED:"1 second,minute,etc"When I read such a statement in a "scientific"article I become puzzled.Please answer only seriously.(Jokes I know enough)
2006-09-15
22:05:08
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9 answers
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Anonymous
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Physics