These questions are self-refuting, and try to make oneself morally superior by doing the exact same thing they criticize- judging. If one feels that judging is wrong, why do they judge someone else by implying that they have no right to judge?
For instance- person #1 says abortion is wrong (you can insert any hot button issue here). Person #2 says "Who are you to say?". Person #2 can simply reply by saying "Who are you to say 'Who are you to say'?"
Now I know that people would come back and say (in this particular example) "If you've never had an abortion, how could you say" This implies that only the person who's done action(s) is the one who has the right to a judgement call. If this were the case then only Hitler was the rightful judge of what he did on his continent, that is not right.
When someone implies that no one has a right to judge, they judge and are unknowingly making a judgement about themselves.
What do you all think? Agree or disagree?
2006-07-03
07:22:20
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21 answers
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asked by
chuck3011
3
in
Philosophy