Can a society itself be regarded as moral or immoral? If so, should we or should we not accept the idea that if society does wrong, it is because it does not know better- as Socrates believed was the case in morality of an individual - i.e. a person does wrong out of ignorance, not malice. For instance, in Elizabethan England, one method of abortion was simply to wait until the infant was born, and then to smash him/her against a wall. Remember how Victorian England used little boys as chimney sweeps- they would be burned, become deformed, break bones, and often die. Shall we fault Germany of the 1930s and 40s and call it an immoral society? Not to make the question too politically charged, but shall the 20th/21st century Western World be looked down upon for its tolerance of modern-day abortion?
What do you have to say about all this. Please give a thoughtful response, if you do respond. Thank you.
2007-03-25
15:26:34
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8 answers
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asked by
Philip Kiriakis
5