The first recorded use of the word was in 1869 by Karl-Maria Kertbeny.So, how could a word that was not in use during the writing of the Bible be in the Bible and be used to condemn people by quoting the scripture with that word that had not been in use before 1869?Is this a case of convenient amnesia about the original language and texts of the Bible?Was the word added to support sexual repression and then the addition was conveniently forgotten and assumed to have always been there?
Also, the word sodomy appears in the Bible and is used as yet another way to condemn.Yet few modern people take the time to actually learn what the original sins of Sodom were.It was not anal sex.Consider the following (in added details)
2007-01-30
01:17:18
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4 answers
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asked by
Tobeornottobe
3
in
Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender