The common definition (e.g.: Wikipedia) is that: mech eq is achieved when net force and net torque on EACH PARTICLE of the system is zero. My question is: why is a ball spinning at constant angular velocity and zero translational motion at mech eq?
At first it makes sense, since translation velocity and angular velocity are both constant (hence net force and torque are zero). But the definition says that EVERY PARTICLE of the system must have zero translational and angular acceleration. If we consider the particles off the centre of the ball, they are actually accelerating centripetally as the ball spins, even though their speed is constant; these particles are therefore not in equilibium. So why do we still say that the ball itself is at equilibrium?
Is the issue here just a case of simplifying the ball into a single indivisible body?
2007-07-26
12:30:51
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5 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
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Physics