Well, I have a new theorem about random number. Just before publish it, I wish to know whether any others know about this, so please, those brilliant guys and girls, try your best to answer it.
Given a situation that, for a total choices of n, each choice has a same probability to be played, ie 1/n. After t times of plays, which t is a very large value, if not infinity, is it true to says that, ALL choices of n will have same frequency of occurance, ie t/n (t * 1/n) after t plays?
Please takes note that, the t is a very very large value, and we predict it in a way of mathematically, not through experiments or computer programs.
2006-07-20
05:18:41
·
11 answers
·
asked by
wyeechen
2
in
Mathematics