Am selling a house, it was sold for $50,000. At the signing yesterday, the documents say that the house was sold for $63,000. I asked about it, and the broker said it was "just fluff" because the buyer couldn't get a mortgage without inflating the price.
We were expecting to get about $10,000 after everything was said and done, but we're only getting $3150, yet the same paperwork says we're getting over $21,000.
The buyer in this case has been, for the last 7 years, on a verbal lease to pay all bills on this house while he lived there, until he could get his own mortgage. Upon serving him with a 10 day eviction notice, he decided he wanted to buy the house.
He hasn't paid the trash since 2002, is always late with the mortgage payments (in my husband's name!!) and the remaining amount on my husband's mortgage should have been only around $15,000, but due to all the late payments from the lessee, it ended up being $34,000.
Any advice? Anything illegal going on with the sale?
2007-08-01
03:04:15
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11 answers
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asked by
NONAME
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