My friend wants to sell her house and I want to buy it. Her husband acquired it in 1978 and deeds to an adjacent property verify his name in relation to my friend's home. He could've given the deeds to my friend when they split up. The actual house is not registered and the land registry told me that it can't have a recent mortgage on it as the property and the charge would be registered. All they have is the plan. My friend swears she has a mortgage on it that she took out recently because she says she cannot sell until after May due to redemption penalties. She is American and the house is in England. Would any lender, including US ones, be prepared to release funds on a house without doing the proper checks and legal work? She says the lender has the deeds. Surely if the lender hasn't got a registered charge, their interests, and indeed hers as owner, are not fully protected? Would any lender do this? I don't want to waste money on legal fees if she cannot sell.
2007-01-06
04:38:22
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2 answers
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asked by
Nikkiw
1
in
Renting & Real Estate