it seems logical at first glance however if you read up on it on wikipedia or the online encyclopedia of philosophy, it will say that the ideas of solipsism are One might even say, solipsism is necessarily foundationless, for to make an appeal to logical rules or empirical evidence As a theory, it is incoherent. What makes it incoherent, above all else, is that the solipsist requires a language (that is a sign-system) to think or to affirm his solipsistic thoughts at all.wittgenstein shows this in his private language argument. It is hoplessely undermined and dismissed
and in terms of the brains in a vat and the matrix idea it would not be possible to perceive that we are brains in a vat because if we did we would no be brains in a vat. i think the mans name who gos into detail on this is putman. he basicaly destroys the idea.
So then how is it that solipsism and the brain in a vat are deemed “irrefutable”?? is it that the ONLY reason they are “irrefutable” is because even though we have theories and even logic and common sense proving other wise we still cannot have true empirical evidence of reality because we cannot rely on our senses. So basically we know that reality obviousely exists. Its just that we cant use our senses to prove it. Am I correct?
2007-05-27
08:06:23
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7 answers
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asked by
Anonymous