I asked a question earlier that was poorly explained and ended up confusing most people, so here's my second shot at it:
Will the grace of God eventually lead to the salvation of all people? I ask this in light of reading 1st Timothy 4:9-11, which states, "The saying is sure and worthy of full acceptance. For to this end we toil and struggle, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe. These are the things you must insist on and teach." (NRSV)
Note how Timothy says God is not Savior ONLY to those who believe, but instead says ESPECIALLY. The Greek word μαλιστα is used 12 times in the NT, and is translated as "especially" 11 out of 12 times (the exception: 2 Timothy 4:13). This is not a distortion of the word on part of the NRSV translators.
Doesn't this seem to clash with the idea that only believers can and will be saved? How can Christ be the savior of unbelievers if they aren't actually saved?
2007-12-09
18:35:38
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9 answers
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asked by
Harbinger
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in
Religion & Spirituality