If Jesus were truely God in the flesh, why would John deny this four verses after proclaiming in it in John 1:14? For John 1:18 says, "No one seen God at any time." Mind you, this quote is taken from every English Version that has been translated by non-other than trinitarians.
In truth, in Jewish culture, which was the same as John and the apostles, we teach that the God of Israel does in fact have a son, but that he is a made being. Thus, making it impossible for him to be eternal and "God in the Flesh." The truth is this, I will make it easy for the simple. If a bear will have a baby, thus being a cub, that cub cannot yet do what his parents can do while still being a young bear. Yet, in time he will do exactly what his parents can do, but this does not make him his parents. Similarly, a monkey cannot do what a bear can do and a monkey cannot do what a human can do. Thus, because the son of God is of the same specie as his Father, he to can create, but this does not make him God
2007-09-22
23:53:47
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9 answers
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torah-man
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Religion & Spirituality