Jesus answered a group of Jews and said, "Is it not written in your law, 'I said, ye are gods'?" (John 10:34)
There are many people who believe this passage states that man can become GODS.
(5 PERCENTERS, MORMONS, and other people)
my question is, have these groups/people twisted the meaning of this passage(like many others) from its original REAL meaning in the bible?
Read this before anything:
http://www.ronrhodes.org/qmanbecomegod.h...
Thanks for all replies
2007-09-04
16:36:59
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14 answers
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asked by
Mike V
2
in
Religion & Spirituality