Then does God also forbid an infertile/impotent man or a barren/infertile woman from getting married? After all, neither of these two can sire/mother a child, and therefore the marriage would not be capable of fulfilling God's divine purpose.
For the sake of those who'd argue, 'but it would be possible', assume the man has been castrated due to testicular cancer, or the woman has had a hysterectomy due to ovarian and uterine cancer. At this point, you'd need a miracle, but if we're going to go for miracles, an omnipotent God could create a miracle for two gay guys or two gay gals too.
So, what's the REAL reason for this objection? Because of the nature of marriage, or because of some Christian's "ick"-factor towards homosexuality?
2007-01-03
06:42:45
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31 answers
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asked by
Anonymous