Why did Jesus prohibit the Gospel from being preached
to the Gentiles during his ministry (Matthew 10:5,
7:6,15:24-26) but after his 'resurrection' tell them
to preach the Gospel to the whole world? (Mark
16:15)
If Jesus really had made the latter statement, why
was there such a fierce debate within the early
Church (and particularly between Peter and Paul) as
to whether the Gospel should be preached to the
Gentiles? (Acts 15:6-30)
2007-01-29
21:55:01
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6 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Religion & Spirituality