I'm a math major and a professor in a philosophy class I was in recently discussed this as an example of a definition or assumption that mathemeticians use. My question is, since this is true for lower level math courses (I've only taken up to Lin. Alg.), is it still a definition, or has a proof been offered for it?
(Again, this is question has mostly a kind of a graduate-level audience. Please don't respond with some stupid crap about how 1+1 can't equal 3, therefore it's true, or anything like that.)
2006-10-28
16:07:12
·
11 answers
·
asked by
topher8128
2
in
Mathematics