If it is, then there is no issue. It would be no different than a person cutting off their own finger.
But if it isn't, then there is a whole separate set of issues that arise. Since a fetus is clearly a genetically distinct human, it clearly is not her, so the argument that it is "her body" does not apply.
The only option left is that she owns the fetus like she does a book, or a chair. Does the woman "own" the fetus like she does a chair, which she has a right to smash if she chooses? And when does her ownership right end?
Does a woman "own" the fetus because it depends on her for life? If that's the case, why are abortions for 1 year olds not legal? They depend on the mother just as much.
Or is it because she cannot transfer ownership and responsibility while it is a fetus, but she can when it is 1 year old? But what happens if no one wants the one year old? Does she retain the right of abortion?
2006-09-17
11:02:35
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16 answers
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asked by
BrianthePigEatingInfidel
4