When my current husband & I married I owned the house we are living in, which I received from a previous divorce so at that point the house should be separate property. We refinanced it later, which I understand might make it community property. Within a month or so of refinancing, however, my current husband quit his job, and has not worked since. All mortgage payments have been made by me out of my salary. We are in the process of selling the house and I believe that he is trying to get part of the proceeds of the house. My question is, since this was separate property when we married, even though it was refinanced in both of our names, since I have made all mortgage payments and he has no income, can this still be considered separate property and should all the proceeds be mine?
2006-07-13
04:24:45
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8 answers
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asked by
Cheryl H
1
in
Marriage & Divorce