I've heard that in some productions of Hamlet, Ophelia is made to be very pregnant when she goes mad and sees Laertes after Polonius dies. In those ages, drowning was a common way for unwed mothers to kill themselves, and because Ophelia did die by drowning, it is a possible conclusion that she was pregnant at the time. There is no indication in the text of her pregnancy, however.
What are your thoughts on the subject?
2007-02-01
12:07:03
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Books & Authors