I've heard that in some productions of Hamlet, Ophelia is made to be very pregnant when she goes mad and sees Laertes after Polonius dies. In those ages, drowning was a common way for unwed mothers to kill themselves, and because Ophelia did die by drowning, it is a possible conclusion that she was pregnant at the time. There is no indication in the text of her pregnancy, however.
What are your thoughts on the subject?
2007-02-01 12:07:03 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Books & Authors
I do believe that Ophelia had been pregnant with Hamlet's child, however, but not to the point where it would have been noticable. Perhaps, she had just learned. If you take a look at a section that Hamlet says in Act II, Scene II: ' Let her not walk i' th' sun. Conception is a blessing, but not as your daughter may conceive. Friend, look to't.'
Oftentimes, Hamlet uses 'sun' for the play on words 'son', which he means himself. Conception is an obvious meaning, 'but not as your daughter may conceive' leads me to believe that he means out of wedlock, such as they were. 'Friend, look to't' means that Hamlet likely knows that she is pregnant and that they should expect it in the future.
However, this is where I found the evidence. Ophelia being pregnant is your own interpretation.
2007-02-01 15:38:27 · answer #1 · answered by Kai Kai 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Was Ophelia Pregnant
2016-11-07 08:21:38 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i really don't think Ophelia was pregnant...she was a very obedient daughter and sister...and took Polonius' and Laertes' advice really seriously (to keep away from Hamlet) besides Ophelia was just very depressed and bordering on insanity(she was probably really insane) after her father died and she didn't really know what she was doing...
2007-02-01 12:12:36 · answer #3 · answered by Renzel 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In my opinion, you hit the nail on the head when you observed that there's no indication in the original text that she was with child. Had that been part of his plot, it would have exerted a pronounced influence on the play, and in that case I can't see W.S., or the great majority of theatrical directors since his time, leaving room for ambiguity. That pregnancy story is just a superfluous distraction inserted by a few schmo-head directors.
2007-02-01 12:40:52 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ophelia is a virgin if ever there was one.
These sensation-seeking directors give me a pain!
2007-02-01 17:37:48 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That interpretation was first advanced by a somewhat eccentric (but brilliant) academic; it has found favor with some directors but with very few scholars.
2007-02-01 12:20:27 · answer #6 · answered by angel_deverell 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yeah, sure, why not? And she was also a vampire. Her mother was a mermaid, and invented the Ouija board.
2016-03-17 01:46:43 · answer #7 · answered by Lisa 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋