According to Qu'ranic teachings and the hadiths, Arab existence prior to the advent of Islam (in the 7th Century AD) is termed a time of darkness and infidelity (jahilya---I think this is the right spelling). Anything that transpired during this Arabic dark age is considered irrelevant to the history of the Muslim community (ummah).
If that is so, than how do claims of Muslim precedence in the area gain acceptability? Sure, Muslims gained control of Jerusalem and parts of modern Israel between the 10th-12th Centuries, but the Jewish tribes were there long before and were only 'dissolved' in 70 AD by the Roman Empire.
Muslims cannot have it both ways. Either Islam reigns pure and they have no primary claim to Israel, or this Qu'ranic declaration must be ignored.........thus ignoring Allah.
2007-10-19
09:38:57
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8 answers
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asked by
CHRISTOPHER K
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in
Politics