√i = ½√2 + i·½√2
√-i = -½√2 + i·½√2
2007-10-19 09:45:07
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Many of the answers posted so far are incomplete
and others are wrong.
First 2^(2i) = 4^i = e^(i log 4) = cos( log 4) + i sin(log 4).
Next, every complex number has 2 square roots.
So let's find both square roots of i.
First let's write i in polar form: i = 1/_Ï/2.
To get the square root of r/_θ, you
take âr and divide θ by 2.
So a square root of i is 1/_Ï/4 = (â2 + â2i)/2
The other square root is 1/_(Ï/4 + Ï) = (-â2 -â2i)/2.
To find the square roots of -i, use the fact that
-i = 1/_3Ï/2.
So â-i = 1/_3Ï/4 or 1/_7Ï/4 = (-â2 + â2i)/2
or (â2 -â2i)/2.
Here's another way to find the square roots of i and -i:
The square roots of i satisfy x²-i = 0
and the square roots of -i satisfy x²+i = 0.
Let's multiply these 2 equations together to get
x^4+1 = 0.
But this factors into 2 real quadratics:
(x² + â2x +1)(x² - â2x +1) = 0.
Now solve these 2 quadratics to get the 4
solutions above. By squaring, you can find
the ones whose square is i and those whose
square is -i.
2007-10-19 21:31:02
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answer #2
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answered by steiner1745 7
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Euler's Equation tells us...
e^(xi) = cos(x) + sin(x) i
1)
2^(2i) = 4^i = e(ln(4)*i) , so x=ln(4)
2^(2i) = cos(ln(4)) + sin(ln(4))i
2)
First put i in the e^(xi) form.
Is there a value for x that makes sin(x)=1 and cos(x)=0? Sure, pi/2.
i = cos(pi/2) + sin(pi/2)i = e^(i pi/2)
The square root of that is e^(i pi/4).
e^(i pi/4) = cos(pi/4)+sin(pi/4)i
= (1+i)sqrt(2)/2
Rearrange that however you want.
Let's check that:
[(1+i)sqrt(2)/2] ^ 2 = (1+i)^2 / 2
= (1 + 2i + i^2) / 2
= (1 + 2i - 1) / 2
= 2i/2
= i Perfect!
I'll let you figure out the square root of -i.
2007-10-19 17:00:24
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answer #3
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answered by ryanker1 4
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If you mean 2^(2i) instead of 2^2 * i = 4i:
2^(2i) = e^(2i ln 2) = cos (2 ln 2) + i sin (2 ln 2)
Also, in addition:
-sqrt(2)/2 - sqrt(2)/2 i and sqrt(2)/2 - sqrt(2)/2 i are the other square roots of i and -i, respectively. (In addition to the roots CogitoErgoCogitoSum gave)
edit: Alright... sue me. 2 ln 2 = ln 2^2 = ln 4.
2007-10-19 16:52:00
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answer #4
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answered by ♣ K-Dub ♣ 6
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I don't think 2^2i can be simplified any further
And you want x such that x^2=i
x=(-1)^1/4 (whatever that turns out to be
-i = i^3 = -1*i so it would be -(-1)^0.25
2007-10-19 16:45:53
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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2^2i is the same as (e^2i)^ln2 which is (cos(2) + isin(2))^ln2
a simple way to convince you of it is to write X = 2^2i
then lnX = ln (2^2i) = 2iln2
so X = e^(2iln2) = (e^2i)^ln2
2007-10-19 16:50:30
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answer #6
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answered by Christophe G 4
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there's no such thing as a minus square root of a number as it is a number times itself (the same number) e.g - i ^2 = a positive and a positive x a positive also =s a positive
2007-10-19 16:44:13
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answer #7
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answered by Hettie. 3
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(i)^1/2=[cospi/2 +1sinpi/2]^1/2
=cos(pi/4+isinpi/4)or
= [1+i]/sqrt(2)
(i)^1/2= [cos pi/2-isinpi/2]^1/2
=[cos pi/4- isinpi/4].=[1-i] / sqr(2). ANS.
2007-10-19 16:54:36
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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2^2i=4i
sq rt of i=.7071067812+.7071067812i
sq rt of -i = 7071067812-.7071067812i
and for everyone that said i is unknown..no its not, i is simply not a variable. it is the sq rt of -1, which is not possible, imaginary number, so they created a symbol (i)
2007-10-19 16:43:09
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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2^2i = 4 * -1 = -4
2007-10-19 16:41:41
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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