so here's another thing i don't get about the bible. forgive me if i'm mistaken on this, but as i've been told, biblical scholars have claimed that although jesus never said he is god he used a form of saying I AM that is only used by a person professing to be god. for such a form of the combination of those two words to exist such that it's recognized on such a large scale, doesn't that mean that it was used a lot? for linguists to have determined that there was a special circumstance when to use this form of I AM tells me that a lot more people than just jesus were using it. we don't have that large of a number of people claiming to be god today, hence no use for a special I AM. your thoughts?
2007-04-03
09:19:54
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16 answers
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asked by
just curious (A.A.A.A.)
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Religion & Spirituality