Matthew 5:32 says "But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery."
As a gay man, I have been accused of sinning by giving in to my "fleshly desires," even though I'm monogamous.
Jesus is very clear here that marrying a divorced woman is equivalent to adultery.
Jesus Christ said these precise words about divorce. This isn't the Old Testament, this isn't St. Paul. It's Jesus.
So is every man who marries (and remains monogamously married) to a divorced woman committing adultery?
Therefore should he (and she) be prevented from (a) membership in a church (b) access to communion (c) preaching and ordained pastorate and (d) burial via a Christian funeral?
There is no record of Jesus saying anything about homosexuality. Why then are gay people prevented from these things when Jesus exact words are often openly ignored?
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2007-01-21
03:09:47
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9 answers
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asked by
NHBaritone
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Religion & Spirituality