if we understand or define costs as including fairpay for the workinput of owners, as well as employee costs, overheads, advertising, accounting, costs of materials [which are ultimately labour costs] etc, then profits BY DEFINITION have to be money for no work = injustice [legal theft or beggary] = overpay, causing wealth concentration, causing tyranny, ie, the destruction of democracy?
is it rocksolid that there is nothing to limit profits to fair return to owners? - ie, that, after they have been paid fair returns for their labour, there is nothing stopping returns to go in excess of this, which by definition are money for no work?
profits can be for reasons of scarcity, monopoly, etc which are clearly not money for work, & therefore must cause work for no money [= underpay, wageslavery, slavery, evergrowing injustice, causing evergrowing violence [= misery], necessarily escalative to extinction [selfmurder of 6-7 billion]
it is IMPOSSIBLE for there to be doubt of this - yes?
2006-10-16
18:43:07
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3 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Economics