No its not homework, I'm trying to understsand the calculus-based derivation of Pi. By "Pythagoras'" theorm, a circle centred on the origin represents this relationship: y = the function above. By taking strips of the circle from from x = -R to x = +R, the area may be composed. By reducing them towards zero width whilst multiplying towards infinity in number, the area may become accurate. Newtons integration makes the calulation exact. The integrated funtion = pi times R squared, we are told. Can anyone help me to understand how this works please?
2006-07-07
13:51:55
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8 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
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Mathematics