As black history month begins I have begin to think on this topic. Why would Americans, white ones at least, be pushed to pay money to black families when A) they no longer are enslaved B) no one in over 100 years has been enslaved and C) when we did enslave people, we did not actually do it, in the case of Africans, their own nobility would sell their lower class citizens (later it would be any class) to the europeans. My question is why would Americans pay when all they did was buy what was then property when the peoples of the Ivory Coast do not pay a dime to the enslaved peoples descendants?
2007-02-01
17:39:10
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15 answers
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Anonymous
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Other - Cultures & Groups