The Qur'an recognizes the Bible as the word of God, plus a little extra added by men, and thus corrupted. However, the subject of a future savior dominates the language and subject matter of the Old Testiment. How does the Islamic world translate that, or do they choose to ignore it?
I know that Jesus is only regarded as a faultless human being, not equivilent with divinity, and a prophet in Islam. I also know that the Muslims at one point were friendly (so to speak) with the Jews because of their common stance on Jesus and polytheism, but that their neutral ties were severed when the Muslims expected the Jews to recognize an Arab savior ("The Longman Anthology World Literature vol B, pg 406).
Thanks for any help you can provide.
2006-11-07
10:30:19
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13 answers
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asked by
saphie
1
in
Religion & Spirituality