originally everyone produced all their own goods - then we decided job specialisation [js] would be good, more efficient - same ppl, same hrs produce more - let's call the efficiency factor ef - if js produces 3x more [with same ppl, same hrs], the ef is 3
[js of course necessitated exchange [trade], which led to money, an artifical convenient [divisible, nonperishable, portable] barter item]
the just division of goods before js was automatic: everyone's own work yielded their own pay - is it therefore true that a person's just pay with js is what they would produce before js, x ef?
ie, the just division of goods after js is the same PROPORTION as before js?
therefore the range of pay [ratio of highest to lowest pay] will with justice [= peace] stay the same - ie, if the ratio of highest to lowest production per hour before js is 2, the same ratio will in justice apply after js [& everyone will have ef times as much]?
2006-10-27
16:27:34
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Mathematics